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"Spanish naval losses meant a total dependence on the French navy to keep up communications with the Americas.[16]" This statement seems exagerated to me - given that the Spanish lost just three galleons. I am aware that under the last Spanish Habsburg king all institutions, the navy included, had been allowed to fall into an abject state of neglect and corruption - but this statement strikes me as, well, almost unbelievable. Could somebody double check this academic's claim - we should not accept such extraodinary claims without demur - even if from a recognized academic Provocateur (talk) 00:21, 29 September 2008 (UTC)[reply]
The statement above was from N.A.M Roger. From Henry Kamen's The War of Succession in Spain. In the Med the Spanish crown controlled 28 ships in all: 7 made up the squadron of Spain, six were based in Genoa and were, by contract, under the command of a Doria, the duke of Tursis; 7 were stationed in Naples, 6 in Sicily, and two inSardinia.
"As an effective fighting force this motley navy had no existence, and the principle claim of the navy on royal finances was in the wages of the otherwise unemployed admiral, Fernan Nunez" What naval power did exist was to devoted exclusively to the protection of the trade with America, which in 1701 totalled 20 under the command of the Admiral General of the Ocean Sea. Four of this number made up the Barlovento fleet whose principle task was to escort the silver across the Atlantic. Quote, "Apart from these, the Spanish crown had ceased to exists as a naval power [leading to] a total dependence on the protecting hand of France" p. 59. Rebel Redcoat (talk) 13:31, 29 September 2008 (UTC)[reply]
"Here, by contrast, I have only to pick up what other men have lost, and not only in this Bay of Vigo
but at a thousand other sites where ships have gone down, whose positions are marked on my
underwater chart. Do you understand now that I’m rich to the tune of billions?”
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