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He was certainly some sort of criminal, his nationality could be open to interpretation. Would British mandate Palestine criminal be better? PatGallacher02:01, 4 December 2005 (UTC)[reply]
He was Palestinian. But to the best of knowledge he was never found guilty in an independent court of justice. I would not include him even there. gidonb02:06, 4 December 2005 (UTC)[reply]
This may raise some questions about what we understand by an independent court of justice, can we come up with a POV definition of this? PatGallacher23:56, 4 December 2005 (UTC)[reply]
I don't know much about the subject but I've read that categories aren't supposed to be 100% precise. For example, the Golan Heights can be placed in the category geography of Israel or geography of Syria. MJGR12:01, 16 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
it's a differnet issue. Calling them criminals is like calling them terrorists. These are POV terms which I understand wikipedia tried to avoid. Amoruso12:38, 17 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Tough one. I would say no, not a criminal. Criminals -- that is bank robbers, serial killers, con men, embezzlers, etc. He was primarily a political actor, a terrorist, and a kind of soldier. I think people whose motivation is primarily political should not be in the category criminals. For the same reason, I wouldn't put those London plane-bomb guys in the category criminals, either, if and when they are convicted. I wouldn't put Lenin in that category, or Jesus, although both were convicted criminals. (I would put Arthur Bremer and John Hinkley in the category criminal, as they were primarily just attention-seeking nutcases who would have shot anyone.) Granted, this requires a judgement call in borderline cases (Sirhan Sirhan etc.). But what doesn't? Herostratus06:18, 23 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]